Gender Irregularities

The one thing I really noticed about the first part of act 3, scene 2 is Juliet’s use of “sky” references; cloudy night, sun, moon, stars, heaven, etc. This wouldn’t have come to my attention if we hadn’t gone over Romeo’s use of “sky” references in act 1. It seems now with Juliet using the references that she has begun to act more like she is supposed to. I know that women in this time period are supposed to be weak and sensitive and that is of course the basis for the gender irregularities in the play. Romeo is sensitive and moody and Juliet, even though it was unintentional, made the first profession of love. But I feel like that changes a bit in act 3. Juliet, in act 3, scene 2 appears more like a girl in love - speaking to herself, talking to the night, wishing Romeo was there with her, anxious for news of him from her nurse. The entire time we see her she adheres more to what society has come to expect from teen girls with a crush (even though she is technically married to Romeo at this point, the feeling remains the same). She is, for lack of a better word, giddy with the thought of seeing him. This is in contrast to act 2. scene 2 when Juliet is talking and doesn't realize Romeo is there listening and she is very sensible about her reaction to him. The famous “What’s in a name” line is a good example of this, as is when she doesn't allow Romeo to swear by the moon because of its waxing / waning cycles. Of course Romeo at that moment is the one speaking of heavenly bodies, so they are set as opposites.
In act 3 Romeo is given what I perceive as his first truly masculine act of killing Tybalt but the manliness of this is stripped from him quickly. Not only does he try to interfere with the fight between Tybalt and Mercutio but he flees the scene after he kills Tybalt. Even when he fights with Tybalt it’s because he killed Mercutio, not because of the insults he threw at Romeo. Romeo wanted peace between himself and Tybalt, which in today’s world is great but back then for him to take the insult without attempting to settle the score would have been seen as weak, and I think that’s what Shakespeare is trying to do. I would love to say that Shakespeare is using Romeo’s weakness as a reason for killing both him and Juliet. I understand there are other factors involved in the deaths and I am currently unable to fully support the statement. I’m simply putting the idea out there that maybe if Romeo was more manly things would have turned out differently.